In 1648, how did western and Eastern Europe differ politically , economically and socially?

[Ryan]

[moravianhawk]

Western Europe embraced capitalism with the emergence of the strong middle class and large business class. The feudal obligation between peasant and landlord weakened that the serfdom was abolished. Western Europe had access to sea, markets, material, and resources, from which it had benefited to become the world's most successful region. Central Europe east of France and west of Russia did not completed the transition from feudal economy to modern, but was moving this direction before 30Y War. 30Y War disrupted the positive economic, social, and cultural development in Central Europe and threw the region back by 100 years. In Central Europe the serfdom was not abolished until 1781 (or later, depending on country), and peasants were deeply subjected to the landlord, often worse than medieval obligation.
The Eastern Europe was not affected by 30Y War, and the society was not thrown back to medieval economy. It was deeply feudal society with different social and economic structure than rest of Europe. Because large part of the region was under Asiatic powers, the society was not influenced by radical changes of the Western world like Reformation and Age of Reason. However, in the 18th century, Eastern Europe turned its attention to the Western Europe and attempted to modernize.
The economic and social gap between Central and Western Europe was not filled until turn of the 19th and 20th century. The Eastern Europe is still in catch race with the rest of Europe.
The main difference was the lack of significant middle class. European middle calls was educated, literate, wealthy, and politically active. German, Czech, and Austrian societies experienced significant shrinking of the middle class after 1648, which affected the political development there in modern era. Eastern Europe lacked middle class, this deficiency was inherited in to the 20th century.